What does delivering a person to Satan in 1 Corinthians 5:5 mean? Paul said this regarding the person who lives with his father’s wife or stepmother, a sin considered particularly grave in the Christian context. This sin is not found among those who have not known Christ. Paul says such a thing is “not tolerated even among pagans” (1 Cor 5:1). When he heard about this, Paul wrote to the Corinthian church “to deliver this man to Satan for the destruction of the flesh.” This is not the only place where Paul used this expression. Later, while writing to Timothy, he said he had “handed over to Satan” Hymenaeus and Alexander so they may learn not to blaspheme (1 Tim 1:20). Some think that Paul intends the death of the sinner so that he may not continue in his sinful flesh to sin more and lose his eternity. Does Paul suggest that this man should die now “so that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord?” But it is unreasonable to think that the community of believers have the right...
“I don't know what I think until I write it down.” ― Joan Didion.